Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that
best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1.
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What
is the approximate atomic mass of an atom with 16 neutrons, 15 protons, and 15
electrons? A) | 15
daltons | B) | 16 daltons | C) | 30 daltons | D) | 31 daltons | E) | 46 daltons | | |
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2.
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Different atomic forms of an element contain the same number of protons but a
different number of neutrons. What are these different atomic forms called? A) | ions | B) | isotopes | C) | neutronic atoms | D) | isomers | E) | radioactive atoms | | |
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3.
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How do
isotopes of the same element differ from each other? A) | number of protons | B) | number of electrons | C) | number of neutrons | D) | valence electron
distribution | E) | amount of radioactivity | | |
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Use
the figure below to answer the following questions.
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4.
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Which
drawing is of an atom with the atomic number of 6? A) | Drawing A | B) | Drawing B | C) | Drawing C | D) | Drawing D | E) | Drawing E | | |
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5.
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Atoms
whose outer electron shells contain eight electrons tend to A) | form ionic bonds in aqueous
solutions. | B) | form covalent bonds in aqueous
solutions. | C) | be stable and chemically nonreactive, or
inert. | D) | be unstable and chemically very
reactive. | E) | be isotopes and very
radioactive. | | |
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6.
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A
covalent bond is likely to be polar when A) | one of the atoms sharing electrons is much more
electronegative than the other atom. | B) | the two atoms sharing electrons are equally
electronegative. | C) | the two atoms sharing electrons are of the same
element. | D) | it is between two atoms that are both very strong electron
acceptors. | E) | the two atoms sharing electrons are different
elements. | | |
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Use
the figure below to answer the following questions. .
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7.
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What
is the atomic number of the cation formed in the reaction?
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8.
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The
ionic bond of sodium chloride is formed when A) | chlorine gains an electron from
sodium. | B) | sodium and chlorine share an electron
pair. | C) | sodium and chlorine both lose electrons from their outer
valence shells. | D) | sodium gains an electron from
chlorine. | E) | chlorine gains a proton from
sodium. | | |
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9.
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The
atomic number of chlorine is 17. The atomic number of magnesium is 12. What is the formula for
magnesium chloride? A) | MgCl | B) | MgCl2 | C) | Mg2Cl | D) | Mg2Cl2 | E) | MgCl3 | | |
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10.
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Explains most specifically the attraction of water molecules to one
another. A) | nonpolar covalent
bond | B) | polar covalent
bond | C) | ionic
bond | D) | hydrogen
bond | E) | hydrophobic
interaction | | |
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11.
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An
example of a hydrogen bond is the bond between A) | C and H in methane
(CH4). | B) | the H of one water molecule and the O of another water
molecule. | C) | Na+and Cl- in
salt. | D) | the two hydrogen atoms in a molecule of hydrogen gas
(H2). | E) | Mg+and Cl- in
MgCl2. | | |
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12.
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The
molecular mass of glucose (C6H12O6) is 180 g. To make a 0.5 M
solution of glucose, you should do which of the following? A) | Dissolve 0.5 g of glucose in a small volume
of water, and then add more water until the total volume of solution is 1
L. | B) | Dissolve 90 g of
glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the total volume of the solution is
1 L. | C) | Dissolve 180 g of
glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the total volume of the solution is
1 L. | D) | Dissolve 0.5 g of
glucose in 1 L of water. | E) | Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 1 L of
water. | | |
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Use
the figure below to answer the following questions:
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13.
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How
many grams of the molecule in the figure above would be equal to 1 mol of the
molecule?
(Carbon = 12, Oxygen = 16, Hydrogen = 1)
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14.
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Which
of the following statements is completely correct? A) | H2CO3 is a weak acid,
and NaOH is a weak base. | B) | H2CO3 is a strong acid, and NaOH is
a strong base. | C) | NH3 is a weak base, and
H2CO3 is a strong acid. | D) | NH3 is a weak base, and HCl is a
strong acid. | E) | NH3 is a strong base, and HCl is a weak
acid. | | |
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15.
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What
would be the pH of a solution with a hydroxide ion [OH-] concentration of 10-12
M? A) | pH
2 | B) | pH
4 | C) | pH
10 | D) | pH
12 | E) | pH
14 | | |
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16.
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Which
of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of hydroxide ions
[OH-]? A) | lemon juice at pH
2 | B) | vinegar at pH
3 | C) | tomato juice at
pH 4 | D) | urine at pH
6 | E) | seawater at pH
8 | | |
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17.
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If the
pH of a solution is decreased from 9 to 8, it means that the A) | concentration of H+ has decreased
10 times what it was at pH 9. | B) | concentration of H+ has increased 10 times what
it was at pH 9. | C) | concentration of OH- has increased 10 times
what it was at pH 9. | D) | concentration of OH- has decreased 10 times
what it was at pH 9. | E) | B and D are correct. | | |
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18.
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If the
pH of a solution is increased from pH 5 to pH 7, it means that the A) | concentration of H+ is 2 times
greater than what it was at pH 5. | B) | concentration of H+ is 2 times less than what
it was at pH 5. | C) | concentration of OH- is 100 times greater than
what it was at pH 5. | D) | concentration of OH- is 100 times less than
what it was at pH 5. | E) | concentration of H+ is 100 times greater and
the concentration of OH- is 100 times less than what they were at pH
5. | | |
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19.
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One
liter of a solution of pH 2 has how many more hydrogen ions (H+) than 1 L of a solution of
pH 6? A) | 4 times more | B) | 400 times more | C) | 4,000 times more | D) | 10,000 times more | E) | 100,000 times more | | |
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20.
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Organic chemistry is a science based on the study of A) | functional groups. | B) | vital forces interacting with
matter. | C) | carbon compounds. | D) | water and its interaction with other kinds of
molecules. | E) | inorganic compounds. | | |
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21.
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Early
19th-century scientists believed that living organisms differed from nonliving things as a result of
possessing a "life force" that could create organic molecules from inorganic matter. The
term given to this belief is A) | organic synthesis. | B) | vitalism. | C) | mechanism. | D) | organic evolution. | E) | inorganic
synthesis. | | |
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22.
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Which
property of the carbon atom gives it compatibility with a greater number of different elements than
any other type of atom? A) | Carbon has 6 to 8 neutrons. | B) | Carbon has a valence of
4. | C) | Carbon forms
ionic bonds. | D) | A and C only | E) | A, B, and C | | |
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23.
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The
two molecules shown in the following figure are best described as
A) | enantiomers. | B) | radioactive isotopes. | C) | structural isomers. | D) | nonisotopic
isomers. | E) | geometric isomers. | | |
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24.
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Research suggests that side effects from Ritalin, the drug used to treat attention
deficit disorder, may be caused by contamination of enantiomers, or molecules that A) | have identical three-dimensional
shapes. | B) | are mirror images of one
another. | C) | lack an asymmetric carbon. | D) | differ in the location of their double
bonds. | E) | differ in their electrical
charge. | | |
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25.
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Which
is the best description of a carbonyl group? A) | an oxygen joined to a carbon by a single covalent
bond | B) | a nitrogen and
two hydrogens joined to a carbon by covalent bonds | C) | a carbon joined to two hydrogens by single
covalent bonds | D) | a sulfur and a hydrogen joined to a carbon by covalent
bonds | E) | a carbon atom joined to an oxygen by a double covalent
bond | | |
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26.
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A
chemist wishes to make an organic molecule less acidic. Which of the following functional groups
should be added to the molecule in order to do so? A) | carboxyl | B) | sulfhydryl | C) | hydroxyl | D) | amino | E) | phosphate | | |
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27.
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Which
functional groups can act as acids? A) | amine and sulfhydryl | B) | carbonyl and
carboxyl | C) | carboxyl and phosphate | D) | hydroxyl and
aldehyde | E) | ketone and amino | | |
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Use
the figure below to answer the following questions.
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28.
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Which
is an amino functional group? A) | Group A | B) | Group B | C) | Group C | D) | Group D | E) | Group E | | |
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29.
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Which
is a carboxyl functional group? A) | Group A | B) | Group B | C) | Group C | D) | Group D | E) | Group E | | |
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30.
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Which
molecule can increase the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution and is therefore an organic
acid? A) | Molecule A | B) | Molecule B | C) | Molecule C | D) | Molecule D | E) | Molecule E | | |
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Use
the molecules shown in the figure below to answer the following questions..
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31.
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Which
molecule is a thiol? A) | Molecule A | B) | Molecule B | C) | Molecule C | D) | Molecule D | E) | Molecule E | | |
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32.
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The
molecule shown in the figure below is a
A) | polysaccharide. | B) | polypeptide. | C) | saturated fatty
acid. | D) | triacylglycerol. | E) | unsaturated fatty
acid. | | |
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33.
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What
is the structure shown in the figure below?
A) | starch molecule | B) | protein molecule | C) | steroid molecule | D) | cellulose molecule | E) | phospholipid
molecule | | |
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Use
the figure below to answer the following questions.
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34.
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At
which bond would water need to be added to achieve hydrolysis of the peptide, back to its component
amino acid? A) | Bond
A | B) | Bond
B | C) | Bond
C | D) | Bond
D | E) | Bond
E | | |
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35.
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A
double-stranded DNA molecule contains a total of 120 purines and 120 pyrimidines. This DNA molecule
could be comprised of A) | 120 adenine and 120 uracil
molecules. | B) | 120 thymine and 120 adenine
molecules. | C) | 120 cytosine and 120 thymine
molecules. | D) | 240 adenine and 240 cytosine
molecules. | E) | 240 guanine and 240 thymine
molecules. | | |
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36.
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Large
organic molecules are usually assembled by polymerization of a few kinds of simple subunits. Which of
the following is an exception to this statement? A) | a steroid | B) | cellulose | C) | DNA | D) | an enzyme | E) | a contractile
protein | | |
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The
following questions are based on the 15 molecules illustrated below. Each molecule may be used once,
more than once, or not at all.
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37.
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Which
of the following molecules are structural isomers? A) | 1 and 4 | B) | 5 and 14 | C) | 6 and 12 | D) | 12 and 13 | E) | 14 and 15 | | |
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38.
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Which
of the following molecules is a saturated fatty acid?
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39.
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Which
of the following molecules could be joined together by a phosphodiester type of covalent
bond? A) | 3 and 4 | B) | 3 and 8 | C) | 6 and 15 | D) | 11 and 12 | E) | 11 and 13 | | |
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40.
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Which
of the following statements is false? A) | 1 and 4 could be joined together by a glycosidic linkage
to form a disaccharide. | B) | 9 and 10 could be joined together by ester bonds to form a
triacylglycerol. | C) | 2 and 7 could be joined together to form a short
peptide. | D) | 2, 7, and 8 could be joined together to form a short
peptide. | E) | 14 and 15 could be joined together to form a
polypeptide. | | |
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The
following questions refer to the following simple metabolic pathway:
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41.
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According to Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis, how many genes are necessary for this
pathway? A) | 0 | B) | 1 | C) | 2 | D) | 3 | E) | It cannot be determined from the
pathway. | | |
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42.
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Which
of the following is true for both prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene expression? A) | After transcription, a 3' poly-A tail and a
5' cap are added to mRNA. | B) | Translation of mRNA can begin before transcription is
complete. | C) | RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region to begin
transcription. | D) | mRNA is synthesized in the 3' ? 5'
direction. | E) | The mRNA transcript is the exact complement of the gene
from which it was copied. | | |
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43.
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Which
of the following is not a part of the eukaryotic transcription initiation
complex? A) | promoter | B) | RNA polymerase | C) | transcription
factors | D) | snRNP | E) | TATA box | | |
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44.
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What
are the coding segments of a stretch of eukaryotic DNA called? A) | introns | B) | exons | C) | codons | D) | replicons | E) | transposons | | |
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45.
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A
transcription unit that is 8,000 nucleotides long may use 1,200 nucleotides to make a protein
consisting of 400 amino acids. This is best explained by the fact that A) | many noncoding nucleotides are present in
mRNA. | B) | there is redundancy and ambiguity in the genetic
code. | C) | many nucleotides are needed to code for each amino
acid. | D) | nucleotides break off and are lost during the
transcription process. | E) | there are termination exons near the beginning of
mRNA. | | |
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46.
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Which
of the following is least related to the other items? A) | snRNP | B) | triplet code | C) | wobble | D) | tRNA | E) | anticodon | | |
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47.
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A
mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the
anticodon AAA instead of a phenylalanine. The consequence of this for the cell will be
that A) | none of the proteins in the cell will contain
phenylalanine. | B) | proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of
phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by the codon UUU. | C) | the cell will compensate for the defect by
attaching phenylalanine to tRNAs with lysine-specifying anticodons. | D) | the ribosome will skip a codon every time a
UUU is encountered. | E) | None of the above will occur; the cell will recognize the
error and destroy the tRNA. | | |
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48.
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During
translation, chain elongation continues until what happens? A) | No further amino acids are needed by the
cell. | B) | All tRNAs are empty. | C) | The polypeptide is long
enough. | D) | A stop codon is encountered. | E) | The ribosomes run off the end of
mRNA. | | |
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49.
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Which
of the following does not occur during the termination phase of translation? A) | A termination codon causes the A site to
accept a release factor. | B) | The newly formed polypeptide is
released. | C) | A tRNA with the next amino acid enters the P
site. | D) | The two ribosomal subunits
separate. | E) | Translation stops. | | |
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50.
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Which
of the following is least related to the other items? A) | exons | B) | introns | C) | RNA splicing | D) | signal-recognition particles
(SRPs) | E) | mRNA | | |
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51.
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Which
of the following is (are) true about RNA? A) | snoRNA aids in processing pre-rRNA transcripts in the
nucleolus. | B) | SRP RNA is an essential component of
spliceosomes. | C) | It has functional groups that allow it to act as a
catalyst (ribozyme). | D) | Only A and C are true. | E) | A, B, and C are
true. | | |
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52.
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Which
of the following statements are true about protein synthesis in prokaryotes? A) | Translation can begin while transcription is
still in progress. | B) | Extensive RNA processing is required before prokaryotic
transcripts can be translated. | C) | Prokaryotic cells have complicated mechanisms for
targeting proteins to the appropriate cellular organelles. | D) | Only A and B are
true. | E) | A, B, and C are true. | | |
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53.
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Of the
following types of mutations, which one is likely to be the most common? A) | point mutation | B) | missense mutation | C) | base-pair
substitution | D) | nonsense mutation | E) | frameshift mutation | | |
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54.
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A
frameshift mutation could result from A) | a base insertion only. | B) | a base deletion
only. | C) | a base substitution only. | D) | deletion of three consecutive
bases. | E) | either an insertion or a deletion of a
base. | | |
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55.
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Which
point mutation would be most likely to have a catastrophic effect on the functioning of a
protein? A) | a base
substitution | B) | a base deletion near the start of a
gene | C) | a base deletion
near the end of the coding sequence, but not in the terminator codon | D) | deletion of three bases near the start of the
coding sequence, but not in the initiator codon | E) | a base insertion near the end of the coding
sequence, but not in the terminator codon | | |
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56.
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Which
enzyme was used to produce the molecule in the figure below?
A) | ligase | B) | transcriptase | C) | a restriction
enzyme | D) | RNA polymerase | E) | DNA polymerase | | |
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Use
the following information to answer the questions below.
A eukaryotic gene has "sticky ends" produced by
the restriction endonuclease EcoRI. The gene is added to a mixture containing EcoRI and
a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes conferring resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline. The
plasmid has one recognition site for EcoRI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This
mixture is incubated for several hours, exposed to DNA ligase, and then added to bacteria growing in
nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a
technique that produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. Samples of these colonies
are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus
tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth without
antibiotics.
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57.
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Bacteria containing a plasmid into which the eukaryotic gene has integrated would grow
in A) | the nutrient broth
only. | B) | the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth
only. | C) | the nutrient broth, the ampicillin broth, and the
tetracycline broth. | D) | all four types of broth. | E) | the ampicillin broth and the nutrient
broth. | | |
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58.
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Which
of the following is least related to the others? A) | Southern blotting | B) | denaturation | C) | nucleic acid probe | D) | RNA interference | E) | nucleic acid
hybridization | | |
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59.
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The
major advantage of using artificial chromosomes such as YACs and BACs instead of plasmids for cloning
genes is that A) | plasmids are
unable to replicate in cells. | B) | only one copy of a plasmid can be present in any given
cell, whereas many copies of a YAC or BAC can coexist in a single cell. | C) | YACs and BACs can carry much larger DNA
fragments than plasmids can. | D) | YACs and BACs can be used to express proteins encoded by
inserted genes, but plasmids cannot. | E) | all of the above | | |
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60.
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The
"shotgun" approach used by Craig Venter to sequence the human genome skipped which of the
following steps that were used by the Human Genome Project? A) | genetic mapping | B) | physical mapping | C) | DNA sequencing | D) | A and B only | E) | A, B, and C | | |
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